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11-0900-20158-2 |
STATE OF
OFFICE OF
ADMINISTRATIVE HEARINGS
FOR THE COMMISSIONER OF HEALTH
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In the Matter of
Pine Haven Care Center, Inc. Standard Survey
Exit Date |
RECOMMENDED
DECISION |
The
above matter was the subject of an independent informal dispute resolution
(IIDR) conducted by Administrative Law Judge Barbara L. Neilson on
Marci Martinson, IIDR
Coordinator, Licensing and Certification Program, appeared on behalf of the
Department of Health’s Division of Compliance Monitoring (the Department). Mary Cahill, Planner Principal with the
Division of Compliance Monitoring, also participated in the conference.
Susan M. Schaffer, Attorney at
Law, appeared on behalf of
FINDINGS OF FACT
1.
On
2.
On or about
3.
In this IIDR proceeding, the Facility disputes the
Tag F 309 citation and asserts that it should be deleted or, in the
alternative, the scope and severity score should be reduced to a D-level.
Resident #97
4.
The Resident, an 86-year-old woman, was initially
admitted on a short-term basis to the Facility on
5.
At the time the Resident was admitted to the
Facility, her diagnoses included chronic ischemic heart disease, hypertension,
and diabetes. The Facility’s Progress
Notes relating to the Resident stated that she was alert and oriented at the
time of her admission, with no cognitive impairment. The Resident’s Minimum Data Set noted that
she did not have any problems with short- or long-term memory, was independent
with cognitive skills for daily decision-making, and had not experienced a
change in her cognitive status. The
Minimum Data Set indicated that the Resident had the ability to make herself
understood and to understand others.[4]
6.
During the early morning hours of
7.
On
8.
During the IIDR, the Director of Nursing, Linda
Urness, R.N., testified that the LPN called her about the situation with the
Resident at approximately
9.
At
10.
There is no documentation in the Facility’s Progress
Notes relating to the Resident that the LPN assessed the Resident prior to the
time the ambulance arrived for color or warmth of her skin, lung sounds, or
edema. In addition, there is no
documentation describing whether the Resident’s breathing was normal or
labored.[10]
11.
The report prepared by the ambulance attendants indicated
that the reason for the dispatch was “chest pain/SOB [shortness of breath]” but
identified the Resident’s chief complaint as “SOB.” The report further noted that the Resident
denied any chest pain, dizziness, nausea or lightheadedness when questioned
after the crew arrived, and stated that she felt like she was not getting
enough oxygen. The ambulance report
stated that the Resident’s initial pulse oximeter was 94% on room air and her
skin appeared pale. She was placed on
oxygen at 12 liters per minute. When
oxygen was applied, the report indicated that the pulse oximeter went to 100%,
her skin became normal, and her shortness of breath went away. The Resident did not complain of shortness of
breath during transport to the hospital.[11] When the ambulance attendants administered
oxygen to the Resident after they picked her up on
12.
The hospital emergency room records noted that the
Resident’s chief complaint was shortness of breath and stated that she denied
chest pain or chest pressure. The
hospital determined that the Resident had developed some congestive heart
failure, and concluded that the Resident required admission for management of
her congestive heart failure and to rule out a new acute coronary syndrome.[13] The hospital’s dismissal summary indicated
that the Resident was admitted to the cardiac telemetry unit for further
monitoring of her heart rate and rhythm, and stated that serial biomarkers and
ECG’s were positive for myocardial infarction.
The summary indicated that the Resident underwent cardiac
catheterization and stents were placed to relieve obstruction of coronary blood
vessels.[14]
13.
The Resident remained in the hospital for four
days, from
14.
On
15.
On
16.
On
17.
Ms. Urness also spoke to the Resident’s son on
18.
Ms. Urness discussed the incident with the Resident
on
19.
The Resident was discharged from the Facility to
her home on
20.
In the view of the Facility’s Director of Nursing,
standing orders must be followed until Facility staff members make direct
contact with the Mayo Clinic physician on-call or the hospital emergency room.[23] The Facility’s Standing Orders, which were
signed by a physician on
May use supplemental oxygen for acute
dyspnea or sats [saturation
rate] less than 87% via nasal cannula 1 – 2 liters or mask at 4 liter flow
rate. Wean supplemental oxygen as
tolerated to keep saturation rate above 87% and alert the doctor or nurse
practitioner if condition not relieved in one hour or condition declining.[24]
The Standing Order did not define acute
dyspnea.
21.
The Facility’s Oxygen Administration policy and
procedure dated
Standing oxygen order May use oxygen up to 2 liters via nasal
cannula PRN [as needed]. If the nurse
observes symptoms of respiratory distress such as acute: congestion, shortness of breath, abnormal
lung sounds or change in level of consciousness.
The policy did not indicate what should be done if
the symptoms of which the resident complained were not observed.[25]
22.
On
23.
On
24.
The report was reviewed and screened out on the
grounds that the incident did not constitute an allegation of maltreatment
under the Vulnerable Adults Act, Minn. Stat. § 626.557. The report thus was not forwarded to the OHFC
or the Department of Human Services. The
County Intake Worker told the Facility’s social worker that the nurse probably
could have given the Resident oxygen for comfort and may have exercised bad
judgment. However, the Intake Worker
indicated that the situation seemed to involve an error in therapeutic conduct
that did not result in physical harm.[28]
25.
On
Quality of Care. Each resident
must receive and the facility must provide the necessary care and services to
attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial
well-being, in accordance with the comprehensive assessment and plan of care.
The Statement of Deficiencies concluded that the
Resident “experienced harm due to her inability to receive oxygen during a
period of dyspnea which caused the resident to become anxious and feel like she
was dying.” The Statement of
Deficiencies mistakenly indicated that the Facility “failed to ensure that [the
Resident] who was receiving oxygen
received the appropriate services.”[29] The Resident was not in fact receiving oxygen
on
Based upon the exhibits submitted
and the arguments made and for the reasons set out in the Memorandum that
follows, the Administrative Law Judge makes the following:
RECOMMENDED DECISION
The citation with regard to Tag F 309 is supported
by the facts as to Resident #97, but the phrase “who was receiving oxygen” on
page 7 of the Statement of Deficiencies is inaccurate and should be deleted,
and the scope and severity level should be reduced to level D (no actual harm
with the potential for more than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy).
Dated:
|
s/Barbara L. Neilson |
|
BARBARA L. NEILSON |
|
Administrative Law Judge |
Reported: Digitally recorded
(no transcript prepared).
NOTICE
In
accordance with Minn. Stat. § 144A.10, subd.16(d)(6), this recommended decision
is not binding on the Commissioner of Health.
As set forth in Department of Health Information Bulletin 04-07, the
Commissioner must mail a final decision to the Facility indicating whether or
not the Commissioner accepts or rejects the recommended decision of the
Administrative Law Judge within 10 calendar days of receipt of this recommended
decision.
MEMORANDUM
The Facility asserts that the
deficiency alleged in this case under Tag F 309 should be rescinded completely
or, in the alternative, that the scope and severity level should be reduced
from a level G to a level D. Tag F 309
is based upon an alleged violation of 42 C.F.R. § 483.25(h). Section 483.25 encompasses quality of care
requirements that apply to long term care facilities. It generally requires that “[e]ach resident
must receive and the facility must provide the necessary care and services to
attain or maintain the highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial
well-being, in accordance with the comprehensive assessment and plan of care.”[31]
As reflected in the State Operations Manual (SOM) issued by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), the intent of 42 C.F.R. § 483.25 is to ensure that a resident does not deteriorate within the limits of the resident’s right to refuse treatment and within the limits of recognized pathology and the normal aging process. “Highest practicable” is defined in the SOM as “the highest level of functioning and well-being possible, limited only by the individual’s presenting functional status and potential for improvement or reduced rate of functional decline,” and is determined “through the comprehensive resident assessment by competently and thoroughly addressing physical, mental or psychosocial needs of the individual.”[32] Where there has been a lack of improvement or a decline, surveyors must determine whether the occurrence was unavoidable or avoidable. Under the SOM, a determination of unavoidable decline or failure to reach highest practicable well-being may be made only if all of the following are present: (1) an accurate and complete assessment; (2) a care plan which is implemented consistently and based on information from that assessment, and (3) evaluation of the results of the interventions and revising the interventions as necessary.[33] Surveyors are directed to determine if the resident is being provided services and care and whether the facility is evaluating the outcome to the resident and changing the interventions if needed.[34]
The Department
asserts that the Facility did not provide the Resident with care and services
to maintain her highest practicable mental and psychosocial well-being when the
Resident complained of symptoms of oxygen deprivation. It points out that the Resident was found to
be cognitively aware and able to communicate her needs when she was admitted to
the Facility shortly before the incident, and clearly stated to the LPN on duty
on
In contrast, the
Facility maintains that there is objective evidence that it provided all
necessary care and services to the Resident and that the Resident did not
suffer any actual harm as a result of the Facility’s failure to administer
oxygen to her during the early morning hours of February 28. It asserts that the LPN responded promptly to
the Resident’s call for assistance, immediately assessed the Resident’s
condition (including use of a pulse oximeter to take oxygen saturation
reading), raised the head of the bed, and provided requested pain medication. The Facility further contends that the LPN
contacted the Director of Nursing at approximately
Based
upon the records provided in connection with this IIDR, the Administrative Law
Judge has determined that the Facility did not provide the necessary care and
services for the Resident to attain the highest practicable mental and
psychosocial well-being on February 28, and that the citation with
regard to Tag F 309 is supported by the facts.[36] There is no dispute that
the Resident was alert, oriented, cognitively competent, and able to describe
her symptoms and express her needs. It
appears that the LPN took some steps to evaluate the
breathing difficulty reported by the Resident on February 28 by checking the
Resident’s oxygen saturation and vital signs, and considered the effect of a
few interventions (raising the head of the bed, providing pain
medication). However, there is no
evidence the Resident was thoroughly assessed to determine her cardiac and
respiratory status when she complained that she was unable to get enough
oxygen, even though she had recently undergone bypass surgery and had a history
of heart conditions. For example, there
is no documentation that the LPN evaluated the color or warmth of the Resident’s skin, her lung
sounds, or the existence of edema, and no indication whether her breathing was
normal or labored.
Due to the lack of assessment, it appears that appropriate interventions were not instituted to assist the Resident to maintain her highest level of functioning. The Resident continued to feel anxiety related to her condition for over 1˝ hours before obtaining relief through the administration of oxygen. The ambulance report and the hospital emergency room report provide some corroboration of the Resident’s assertions about her need for oxygen, since her feelings of shortness of breath were relieved by the administration of oxygen, and it was determined that the Resident had developed some congestive heart failure.
The particular intervention sought by the Resident—the administration of supplemental oxygen—was denied because the LPN believed there was no order in effect that permitted her to provide the Resident with oxygen. In fact, the Facility’s standing orders permitted the use of supplemental oxygen either for acute dyspnea (shortness of breath) or where the oxygen saturation rate was less than 87%. The standing orders did not define “acute,” but that term is generally used to connote the abrupt onset of symptoms.[37] Because there is no indication in the medical records that the Resident was experiencing shortness of breath on a chronic or frequent basis prior to February 28, the sudden onset of that complaint on February 28 would appear to be acute in nature, and fall within the standing orders. Indeed, the Facility’s Director of Nursing acknowledged in her discussions with the LPN and the Resident on March 4 and 5, 2008, that the Facility’s standing orders would have allowed the administration of oxygen to the Resident and that the LPN should have administered the oxygen for the Resident’s comfort and to calm her apprehension. It is also significant that the Director of Nursing viewed the LPN’s conduct as sufficiently serious in nature to warrant her removal from contact with the Resident and the potential termination of her employment.
The Department contends that the deficiency was properly issued at a scope and severity level of G (an isolated deficiency that resulted in actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy).[38] The Facility argues that the Resident did not show actual harm within the meaning of level 3, and urged that, at a minimum, the scope and severity level be reduced to a level D.[39]
Where a deficiency is found, the SOM indicates that four possible scope levels are possible: isolated, pattern, and widespread. Because there is no evidence that any other resident was affected, it is appropriate to consider the scope of the current deficiency to be isolated. Four possible severity levels also are available under the SOM: level 1 (no actual harm with potential for minimal harm); level 2 (no actual harm with potential for more than minimal harm that is not immediate jeopardy); level 3 (actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy); and level 4 (immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety). In this instance, the Department selected Level 3, which is defined as “noncompliance that results in a negative outcome that has compromised the resident’s ability to maintain and/or reach his/her highest practicable physical, mental and psychosocial well-being as defined by an accurate and comprehensive resident assessment, plan of care, and provision of services. This does not include a deficient practice that only could or has caused limited consequence to the resident.”[40] The Facility urges that it would be more appropriate to select severity level 2, which involves “noncompliance that results in no more than minimal physical, mental and/or psychosocial discomfort to the resident and/or has the potential (not yet realized) to compromise the resident’s ability to maintain and/or reach his/her highest practicable physical, mental and/or psychosocial well-being as defined by an accurate and comprehensive resident assessment, plan of care, and provision of services.”
CMS has developed a scope and severity grid for use by surveyors,[41] as well as a Psychosocial Outcome Severity Guide to be used in conjunction with the grid to assist in the determination of the severity of a psychosocial outcome to a particular resident.[42] The guide indicates that surveyors should consider both psychosocial outcomes and physical outcomes in determining the severity level, and emphasizes that they are equally important. The guide specifies that negative psychosocial outcomes under Severity Level 3 include:
Chronic or recurrent fear/anxiety that has compromised the resident’s well-being and that may be manifested as avoidance of the fear inducing situation(s) or person(s); preoccupation with fear; resistance to care and/or social interaction; moderate aggressive or agitated behavior(s) related to fear; sleeplessness due to fear; and/or verbal expressions of fear. Expressions of fear/anxiety are not to the level of panic and immobilization.[43]
The guide further notes that examples of negative psychosocial outcomes under the lesser Severity Level 2 include:
Fear/anxiety that may be manifested as expressions or signs of minimal discomfort (e.g., verbal expressions of fear/anxiety; pulling away from a feared object or situation) or has the potential, not yet realized, to compromise the resident’s well-being.[44]
It is evident that the Resident was distressed and anxious about her breathing difficulty on February 28 and the failure of the Facility staff to provide her with supplemental oxygen at that time. She stated that she felt like she was dying. Once the ambulance arrived and she received supplemental oxygen, the Resident indicated her symptoms were relieved, and the higher oximeter reading obtained by the ambulance crew and the improved skin color they noted provided objective evidence of this fact. The Resident remained sufficiently unhappy about the manner in which she was treated by the LPN on February 28 to voice complaints about the situation when she was approached by Facility staff and by the OHFC surveyor.
Under the circumstances presented here, however, there is no proper basis for the Department’s conclusion that the Resident experienced “chronic or recurrent” fear or anxiety that has compromised the Resident’s well-being. There is no evidence that she became preoccupied with fear, repeatedly expressed fearfulness, experienced sleeplessness, resisted cares or social interaction, avoided the fear-inducing situation, or engaged in aggressive or agitated behaviors. Although the Resident expressed some reluctance to return to the Facility after the events of February 28, it is significant that she did, in fact, do so. The mere fact that the Resident mentioned her complaint regarding her treatment on February 28 to the surveyor and Facility staff and described to them the anxiety she felt at the time is not sufficient, in itself, to support a finding that the incident has caused chronic or recurrent fear or anxiety. In fact, the Resident’s courage in making her objections known to the surveyor and Facility staff suggests that her well-being and her convictions have not been compromised. Despite her additional hospitalization on February 28, the Resident was able to return to her own home within less than thirty days, the timeframe originally anticipated at the time of her initial admission to the Facility, and there is no indication that she is receiving any psychological counseling or other services for any type of chronic anxiety stemming from the February 28 incident. The psychosocial outcome experienced by the Resident in this case more appropriately falls under lesser severity level 2, resulting in a D-level deficiency.
After careful consideration of the record as a whole, the Administrative Law Judge concludes that the Division has demonstrated that the citation is supported by the facts and should be affirmed. The citation should be amended by reducing the scope and severity from G to D.
B. L. N.
[1] MDH Ex. D.
[2] MDH Ex. D-7 through D-11.
[3] Facility Ex. 9 at 1, 3, 4, 5.
[4] Facility Ex. 3 at 1, 11, 12.
[5] Facility Ex. 8.
[6]MDH Ex. D-10 – D-11.
[7] MDH Ex. D-7 – D-8; Facility Exs. 2, 3, and 4.
[8] Testimony of L. Urness.
[9] MDH Ex. D-8; Facility Exs. 2, 3, and 4.
[10] MDH Summary at 5-6.
[11] MDH Ex. D-9 – D-10; Facility Ex. 4.
[12] MDH Ex. D-10; Facility Ex. 4.
[13] MDH Ex. D-10; Facility Ex. 5.
[14] Facility Ex. 6 at 2.
[15] Facility Exs. 3, 6; Testimony of L. Urness.
[16] Facility Ex. 7 at 1; see also Facility Ex. 10.
[17] MDH Ex. D-9. The notes were not provided in this proceeding.
[18] Facility Ex. 7 at 2.
[19] Facility Ex. 7 at 3.
[20] Facility Ex. 7 at 4.
[21] Testimony of L. Urness.
[22] Facility Exs. 3, 6; Testimony of L. Urness.
[23] Testimony of L. Urness.
[24] MDH Ex. D-10 (emphasis added).
[25] MDH Ex. D-10.
[26] Testimony of S. Jensen.
[27] Facility Ex. 10 at 3.
[28] Facility Ex. 10 at 3; Testimony of L. Urness and S. Jensen.
[29] MDH Ex. D-7.
[30]
See, e.g., Facility Ex. 3 at 9, 10,
11 (use of supplemental O2 was “N/A” or “None” on
[31] 42 C.F.R. § 483.25.
[32] MDH Ex. E (excerpt from SOM App. PP) at E-1.
[33]
MDH Ex. E-3 - E-4.
[34] MDH Ex. E-4.
[35] The Facility speculates that, had oxygen been administered in the Facility, the Resident’s immediate symptoms of shortness of breath may have been relieved and her admission to the hospital may have been delayed.
[36] However, as noted above, the Administrative Law Judge has recommended that the phrase “who was receiving oxygen” on page 7 of the Statement of Deficiencies be deleted because that statement is not supported by the medical records.
[37] See www.medterms.com.
[38] MDH Ex. D-7.
[39] Minn. Stat. § 144A.10, subd. 16(d)(5), specifically authorizes determinations issued in connection with IIDR proceedings to include a finding that a citation’s “[s]everity [is] not supported,” and permits a recommendation to be made that a citation be “amended through a change in the severity assigned to the citation.” There is no language in the statute limiting such situations only to immediate jeopardy or substandard quality of care severity levels. In addition, the federal regulations set forth in 42 C.F.R. § 488.331(a) require states to offer facilities an informal opportunity “to dispute survey findings.” Thus, notwithstanding CMS’s informal policy statements to the contrary in the State Operations Manual and Program Letter instructions, it appears that the Department’s determination that the Resident suffered actual harm is a “survey finding” that may be disputed by the Facility in this IIDR.
[40] MDH Ex. C (excerpt from SOM App. P) at C-1 – C-2.
[41]
MDH Ex. C-11.
[42] MDH Ex. C-3 – C-4.
[43] MDH Ex. C-8 (emphasis added).
[44] MDH Ex. C-9.